blackbird Posted August 29, 2022 Author Report Posted August 29, 2022 (edited) 19 minutes ago, TreeBeard said: So you disagree with Matthew 19:9 that divorce is adultery? Thats good news! Now , if only you’ll ignore the parts of the bible about gays the same way…. No, I never said "divorce is adultery". That is you saying that. The verse does not say divorce is adultery. It says in that particular verse that fornication is one ground for divorce. So what do you think if a woman has a husband that abuses her mentally? Do you think someone should have to stay married to an abusive partner? Do you believe a woman should remain enslaved to an abusive husband or vice versa? Edited August 29, 2022 by blackbird Quote
TreeBeard Posted August 29, 2022 Report Posted August 29, 2022 (edited) 11 minutes ago, blackbird said: So what do you think if a woman has a husband that abuses her physically or maybe mentally regularly? Do you think she should have to stay married to him? What do you think the bible says about when a woman can divorce her husband? Personally, I think anyone should get divorced for any reason they choose. The odd part to me is that you want the government to regulate who can get married (no gays) according to the bible, but you don’t want the government to regulate divorce based on what the bible says…. Edited August 29, 2022 by TreeBeard Quote
blackbird Posted August 29, 2022 Author Report Posted August 29, 2022 4 minutes ago, TreeBeard said: What do you think the bible says about when a woman can divorce her husband? Personally, I think anyone should get divorced for any reason they choose. "any reason" sounds pretty sad. So if you see another woman you think would be preferable, you would dump your wife for her? Or maybe you don't agree about some trivial matter. I don't think you understand the subject at all. Quote
TreeBeard Posted August 29, 2022 Report Posted August 29, 2022 14 minutes ago, blackbird said: No, I never said "divorce is adultery". That is you saying that. That is Matthew saying what Jesus said. Matthew 19:9 is explicit. And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery Quote
TreeBeard Posted August 29, 2022 Report Posted August 29, 2022 (edited) 7 minutes ago, blackbird said: "any reason" sounds pretty sad. So if you see another woman you think would be preferable, you would dump your wife for her? Or maybe you don't agree about some trivial matter. I don't think you understand the subject at all. Now you’re ignoring my post and making assumptions about what I would do to try and change the subject. I don’t care why anyone else gets a divorce. None of my business. What do you think the bible says about why a woman can divorce her husband? And, why do you want the government to regulate who gets married according to biblical morals, but not regulate divorce in the same way? Edited August 29, 2022 by TreeBeard Quote
blackbird Posted August 29, 2022 Author Report Posted August 29, 2022 1 minute ago, TreeBeard said: Now you’re ignoring my post and making assumptions about what I would do to try and change the subject. I don’t care why anyone else gets a divorce. None of my business. What do you think the bible says about why a woman can divorce her husband? And, why do you want the government to government to regulate who gets married according to biblical morals, but not regulate divorce in the same way? You said " Personally, I think anyone should get divorced for any reason they choose," which is irrational to begin with. Marriage is between a man and woman, period. That is the biblical and societal norm for thousands of years. God created Adam and Eve, not Adam and Steve. Quote
TreeBeard Posted August 29, 2022 Report Posted August 29, 2022 (edited) 5 minutes ago, blackbird said: You said " Personally, I think anyone should get divorced for any reason they choose," which is irrational to begin with. Marriage is between a man and woman, period. That is the biblical and societal norm for thousands of years. God created Adam and Eve, not Adam and Steve. God also said not to divorce except for very specific reasons. But, you ignore those. Do you think a man should be able to take multiple wives, like in the bible? Adam & Eve & Genevieve Edited August 29, 2022 by TreeBeard Quote
blackbird Posted August 29, 2022 Author Report Posted August 29, 2022 (edited) 42 minutes ago, TreeBeard said: God also said not to divorce except for very specific reasons. But, you ignore those. Do you think a man should be able to take multiple wives, like in the bible? Steve-Eve-Genevieve Your interpretation of Matthew 19:9 is incorrect. But you could be forgiven because many people misinterpret that verse. quote In order to understand that there is marriage after divorce, we will examine the Scriptures in Matthew 19:3-12 focusing on the usage of the Greek word, apoluo. The Greek word apoluo that's translated "divorce" or to "put away" is a general word. Its primary usage is: to "send" (apoluo) someone home when it's getting late. When two are leaving each other is a "separation". The Old Testament Hebrew word shalach and the New Testament Greek word apoluo are equivalent as discussed earlier. Apoluo is a separation in general, which does not involve the "legal" aspect of a permanent separation like divorce. The common usage is seen in the Scripture "When it was evening, His disciples came to Him, saying 'This is a deserted place, and the house is already late. SEND (apoluo) the multitudes away, that they may go unto the villages and buy themselves food'" (Matthew 14:15). The Greek word apoluo doesn't have a legal aspect to it. It's just a common word that means, "I'm going to go" or, "away from, to separate." ............ So in the verse in Matthew 19:5 it means a separation and NOT a divorce. If a spouse separates intending never to return, then the next step comes into play; the spouse obtains a "certificate of divorce." This is what the confrontation between Jesus and the Pharisees (the religious lawyers of His day) was about in Matthew 19:3-12. The legal question was, "Do you just separate, OR do you separate AND give a certificate of divorce?" The Greek word used for divorce in these Scriptures means, to "send away" or separate from, NOT the finalized legal divorce. So Jesus was talking about separation not legal divorce. If you separate without getting a legal divorce and marry another then of course you are committing adultery. That is what the verse is talking about. -from page 110 of the book "Divorce: God's Will". by Stephen Gola. Also see divorcehope.com Edited August 29, 2022 by blackbird Quote
TreeBeard Posted August 29, 2022 Report Posted August 29, 2022 4 minutes ago, blackbird said: Your interpretation of Matthew 19:9 is incorrect. But you could be forgiven because many people misinterpret that verse. quote In order to understand that there is marriage after divorce, we will examine the Scriptures in Matthew 19:3-12 focusing on the usage of the Greek word, apoluo. The Greek word apoluo that's translated "divorce" or to "put away" is a general word. Its primary usage is: to "send" (apoluo) someone home when it's getting late. When two are leaving each other is a "separation". The Old Testament Hebrew word shalach and the New Testament Greek word apoluo are equivalent as discussed earlier. Apoluo is a separation in general, which does not involve the "legal" aspect of a permanent separation like divorce. The common usage is seen in the Scripture "When it was evening, His disciples came to Him, saying 'This is a deserted place, and the house is already late. SEND (apoluo) the multitudes away, that they may go unto the villages and buy themselves food'" (Matthew 14:15). The Greek word apoluo doesn't have a legal aspect to it. It's just a common word that means, "I'm going to go" or, "away from, to separate." ............ So in the verse in Matthew 19:5 it means a separation and NOT a divorce. If a spouse separates intending never to return, then the next step comes into play; the spouse obtains a "certificate of divorce." This is what the confrontation between Jesus and the Pharisees (the religious lawyers of His day) was about in Matthew 19:3-12. The legal question was, "Do you just separate, OR do you separate AND give a certificate of divorce?" The Greek word used for divorce in these Scriptures means, to "send away" or separate from, NOT the finalized legal divorce. So Jesus was talking about separation not legal divorce. If you separate without getting a legal divorce and marry another then of course you are committing adultery. That is what the verse is talking about. -from page 110 of the book "Divorce: God's Will". by Stephen Gola. That post had nothing to do with Matthew. I asked a very specific question, which you again ignored. But, Matthew 19:9 is clear that sexual immorality is the only grounds for divorce. Also, you never answered the question I asked about when a woman can divorce her husband, according to scripture. 20 minutes ago, TreeBeard said: Do you think a man should be able to take multiple wives, like in the bible? Adam & Eve & Genevieve The biblical norm was a man married to more than one woman…. Quote
blackbird Posted August 29, 2022 Author Report Posted August 29, 2022 (edited) 10 minutes ago, TreeBeard said: That post had nothing to do with Matthew. I asked a very specific question, which you again ignored. But, Matthew 19:9 is clear that sexual immorality is the only grounds for divorce. Also, you never answered the question I asked about when a woman can divorce her husband, according to scripture. The biblical norm was a man married to more than one woman…. You ignored my posting explaining Matthew 19:9 where the phrase "put away his wife" is not referring to divorce. I am using the King James Version which is the only accurate version. You quoted from some corrupt modern version which uses the word divorce. The word divorce is not the word in the KJV. It clearly says "put away his wife" which clearly means separate from not legally divorce. You answered without reading and understanding what I posted. You want to jump all over the place without dealing with one specific subject. The Greek word "apoluo" means separate from. It does not mean legally divorce. The KJV is translated from the original Greek word which is apoluo. The modern version you used changed or rejected the original word which means separate from to divorce which is a serious corruption. It is not correct. Throw that bible in the waste basket. Edited August 29, 2022 by blackbird Quote
blackbird Posted August 29, 2022 Author Report Posted August 29, 2022 17 minutes ago, TreeBeard said: That post had nothing to do with Matthew. I asked a very specific question, which you again ignored. But, Matthew 19:9 is clear that sexual immorality is the only grounds for divorce. Also, you never answered the question I asked about when a woman can divorce her husband, according to scripture. The biblical norm was a man married to more than one woman…. There were polygamous marriages in Old Testament times, but that was before the church began 2,000 years ago. The norm for Christianity in the New Testament age is one partner. A Christian can only have one wife or husband. Quote
TreeBeard Posted August 29, 2022 Report Posted August 29, 2022 (edited) 15 minutes ago, blackbird said: You ignored my posting explaining Matthew 19:9 where the phrase "put away his wife" is not referring to divorce. I am using the King James Version which is the only accurate version. You quoted from some corrupt modern version which uses the word divorce. The word divorce is not the word in the KJV. It clearly says "put away his wife" which clearly means separate from not legally divorce. You answered without reading and understanding what I posted. You want to jump all over the place without dealing with one specific subject. The Greek word "apoluo" means separate from. It does not mean legally divorce. The KJV is translated from the original Greek word which is apoluo. The modern version you used changed or rejected the original word which means separate from to divorce which is a serious corruption. It is not correct. Throw that bible in the waste basket. Yours is not a typical translation. But, ok. Let’s say I interpreted Matthew 19:9 incorrectly. Now tell me what the bible says regarding when a woman can divorce a man? And you keep avoiding the question about why the state should regulate marriage to align with the bible, but not divorce. Edited August 29, 2022 by TreeBeard Quote
blackbird Posted August 29, 2022 Author Report Posted August 29, 2022 (edited) 3 minutes ago, TreeBeard said: Yours is not a typical translation. But, ok. Let’s say I interpreted Matthew 19:9 incorrectly. Now tell me what the bible says regarding when a woman can divorce a man? Just off the top I would say, as a general statement, if she is being abused or being denied the right to worship God as per the Bible. But if you want specific Bible references, that would take a fair amount of time to dig into which I am not sure I can do right now. I may be able to give some references later. Edited August 29, 2022 by blackbird Quote
TreeBeard Posted August 29, 2022 Report Posted August 29, 2022 Just now, blackbird said: Just off the top I would say, as a general statement, if she is being abused or being denied the right to worship God as per the Bible. What passage says an abused woman can divorce a man? Quote
blackbird Posted August 29, 2022 Author Report Posted August 29, 2022 1 minute ago, TreeBeard said: What passage says an abused woman can divorce a man? OK, I will see what I can find about that. You could also look at the website Divorce Book | Divorced Christain | Christian Divorce Advice | Divorce Guilt (divorcehope.com) and if you really want to know more, I would recommend the book they mention. Quote
blackbird Posted August 29, 2022 Author Report Posted August 29, 2022 9 minutes ago, TreeBeard said: What passage says an abused woman can divorce a man? You may not find one specific verse that says a woman can divorce a man. Like many things, the concept is found in the general teaching of the Bible. quote How can a person live a godly life and at the same time submit that life to someone who practices ungodliness? "For either he will hate the one and love the other, or else he will be loyal to the one and despise the other...." (Matthew6:24). You cannot love the Lord your God with all your heart while lowering and yielding yourself and your children to accept, partake and participate in things that the Lord Himself detests. What has the Lord assigned as our lot in life? Surely it can't be you hate so much you want to die to escape the pain. No! The Scriptures are so powerfully clear. Let's take a look: "14 Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness? 15 And what concord hath Christ with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel? 16 And what agreement hath the temple of God with idols? for ye are the temple of the living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people. 17 Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing; and I will receive you, 18 And will be a Father unto you, and ye shall be my sons and daughters, saith the Lord Almighty. " 2 Corinthians 6:14-18 KJV How could you not hate evil, and truly love, at the same time? That is hypocritical love. Hypocritical love does not hate evil. It allows evil to dwell beside it in its own house. Love must hate evil to be true in itself. Let our love be without hypocrisy. Otherwise, it's not love at all, but bondage. And for one to cling to that which is good, one must at the same time separate from that which is evil. As we move closer to that which is good, there is always a moving away from that which is evil. TRUE LOVE ALWAYS HATES THAT WHICH IS EVIL. --from the book Divorce: God's Will? Quote
TreeBeard Posted August 30, 2022 Report Posted August 30, 2022 1 hour ago, blackbird said: You may not find one specific verse that says a woman can divorce a man. Like many things, the concept is found in the general teaching of the Bible. But there are plenty about when a man can divorce a woman. Do you think this was an oversight by God? Quote
OftenWrong Posted August 30, 2022 Report Posted August 30, 2022 On 3/22/2022 at 11:25 PM, eyeball said: Collateralize something that belongs to everyone then. There are asteroids out there worth more money than has ever been printed or taxed in all of human history combined. Like fat juicy cherries just waiting to be picked. Pie in the sky. Literally. Sure no problem, except most of them are flying by at a mere 100,000 kph. How about a pie in the face? Quote
herbie Posted August 30, 2022 Report Posted August 30, 2022 5 hours ago, blackbird said: stoning only applied to the nation of Israel several thousand years ago and don't apply today. I should friggin' hope so.... wonder when Texas will catch up? Quote
blackbird Posted August 30, 2022 Author Report Posted August 30, 2022 1 hour ago, TreeBeard said: But there are plenty about when a man can divorce a woman. Do you think this was an oversight by God? No, often when God refers to men it also means both men and women. For example this verse uses the word "he" but obviously it refers to everyone. "18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. " John 3:18 KJV Quote
TreeBeard Posted August 30, 2022 Report Posted August 30, 2022 3 hours ago, blackbird said: No, often when God refers to men it also means both men and women. For example this verse uses the word "he" but obviously it refers to everyone. "18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. " John 3:18 KJV So when the bible refers to a man divorcing a woman, it actually means a woman divorcing a man as well? That makes no sense. Quote
blackbird Posted August 30, 2022 Author Report Posted August 30, 2022 9 hours ago, TreeBeard said: So when the bible refers to a man divorcing a woman, it actually means a woman divorcing a man as well? That makes no sense. It makes sense. Abuse can come from a woman or a man so either one can seek a divorce. Quote
TreeBeard Posted August 30, 2022 Report Posted August 30, 2022 30 minutes ago, blackbird said: It makes sense. Abuse can come from a woman or a man so either one can seek a divorce. It only makes sense if you have a preconceived notion that divorce is ok and will find whatever you can in the bible to support it, even twisting it’s meaning. Quote
blackbird Posted August 30, 2022 Author Report Posted August 30, 2022 1 hour ago, TreeBeard said: It only makes sense if you have a preconceived notion that divorce is ok and will find whatever you can in the bible to support it, even twisting it’s meaning. So you believe in the Taliban ideology that a woman is just a slave and a man can abuse her as much as he wants and there is no escape. Quote
TreeBeard Posted August 30, 2022 Report Posted August 30, 2022 4 minutes ago, blackbird said: So you believe in the Taliban ideology that a woman is just a slave and a man can abuse her as much as he wants and there is no escape. No. For some reason, you mistake my quoting the misogynistic nonsense in the bible as support for what is written there. You also mistake my correcting you about what is in the bible for support for what is actually written. Don’t get me wrong…. it’s great that you are anti-bible when it comes to divorce. It would be terrible if a woman was still the property of a man in law, like it is in the bible. There is not a single passage in the bible about a wife divorcing her husband, except in the Old Testament regarding when a man takes another wife, he must still treat his old wife as a wife, and not make her a slave, or else she may divorce him. If you can find another one, put it up. The bible is all about what a man can do to his wife, not the other way around. Quote
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