Tdot Posted May 19, 2020 Report Share Posted May 19, 2020 (edited) 9 hours ago, AYanker76 said: He is correct. Actually, no he is not correct. And your pretty cool link there, even verifies that he is incorrect ---or I just missed the part where your link said GOVT acts on behalf of corporate interests in these cases. Your link is about the famous, well-known law that allows for Public/GOVT use of land in terms of eminent domain. If you go back to your link you'll find that it does not say, whatsoever, that land can be taken for reasons regarding private developer's profiteering like @Argus has wrongly claimed here. Edited May 19, 2020 by Tdot Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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