The object would be to amass the figures related to bank profits/losses in the private first time mortgage sector. If the combined amount of both columns generates a figure that fits within the total loss column of the entire private mortgage sector, would it stand to reason that a separation of private first time mortgages could happen without reducing bank profits? Would it also stand to reason that any money a government creates if accompanied with a proper cancellation policy could ultimately have no effect on inflation? example: Let in a first time mortgage with no down payment and no interest, the repayment is a perfect cancellation policy. Money goes out clean, money comes back clean.
The way I view the risk is this...since there is no borrowing to lend as in the banks situation the risk is low. In terms of default, banks lose because they are forced to sell off the default at whatever price they can get because they have credit deadlines to meet thus incurring substantial loss. The mortgage center on the other hand, has no loss and no credit/payment deadlines to meet.
I wonder if the amount of money not canceled out of circulation by default within this fist time mortgage concept would be a small enough figure to not itself cause inflation. Perhaps a cap of 200,00-230,00(very flexible figure) thousand per mortgage, anything above let at 1% interest to help offset defaults if needed.
I wonder if the not canceled money through default would just simply be a small but honest contribution to stabilizing us as a country internally, socially. As long as it did not effect inflation.
Basically if you can get a first time mortgage from a bank you would be eligible for a government first time mortgage.
I do not have a political or financial background and would like to know if this could make sense. Your opinions, challenges and expansions of this concept are extremely welcome.