ToadBrother Posted July 13, 2010 Report Share Posted July 13, 2010 It's not hard to find a zillion offensive passages in any of the Holy Books...and of course the "big three" monotheisms are chock-full of brutality. But why pick on Jewish scripture specifically? Because he's an anti-Semite. We've already got enough mouth-breathers citing the Qu'ran, using the same method you are here, while ignoring their own "peaceable" [sic] religious texts. Why continue with an assinine debate? Because he's an anti-Semite. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lictor616 Posted July 13, 2010 Report Share Posted July 13, 2010 Because he's an anti-Semite. Because he's an anti-Semite. I also quoted the Quran here... in a similar light... and I'm an atheist that also called Christianity a "spiritual syphilis"... and as I said I reject the ridiculous notion of anti-semetism: which can only mean (should only mean) ANTIPATHY TOWARDS SEMITES... SEMITES ARE A RACE, NOT A RELIGION... if i'm picking on Judaism... then call me anti-judaic, but really I did no more then merely QUOTE passages of the Talmud. I didn't say anywhere that I hated people who believed in them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
M.Dancer Posted July 13, 2010 Report Share Posted July 13, 2010 and as I said I reject the ridiculous notion of anti-semetism: which can only mean (should only mean) ANTIPATHY TOWARDS SEMITES... SEMITES ARE A RACE, NOT A RELIGION... if i'm picking on Judaism... then call me anti-judaic, but really I did no more then merely QUOTE passages of the Talmud. I didn't say anywhere that I hated people who believed in them. Well as long as you reject the origin of the word, its intended uses and reality...But then again, as a revionist, this is not news... The word antisemitic (antisemitisch in German) was probably[vague] first used in 1860 by the Austrian Jewish scholar Moritz Steinschneider in the phrase "antisemitic prejudices" (German: "antisemitische Vorurteile").[31] Steinschneider used this phrase to characterize Ernest Renan's ideas about how "Semitic races" were inferior to "Aryan races." These pseudo-scientific theories concerning race, civilization, and "progress" had become quite widespread in Europe in the second half of the 19th century, especially as Prussian nationalistic historian Heinrich von Treitschke did much to promote this form of racism. In Treitschke's writings Semitic was synonymous with Jewish, in contrast to its usage by Renan and others http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Antisemitism#Forms Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lictor616 Posted July 13, 2010 Report Share Posted July 13, 2010 The word antisemitic (antisemitisch in German) was probably[vague] first used in 1860 by the Austrian Jewish scholar Moritz Steinschneider in the phrase "antisemitic prejudices" (German: "antisemitische Vorurteile").[31] Steinschneider used this phrase to characterize Ernest Renan's ideas about how "Semitic races" were inferior to "Aryan races." These pseudo-scientific theories concerning race, civilization, and "progress" had become quite widespread in Europe in the second half of the 19th century, especially as Prussian nationalistic historian Heinrich von Treitschke did much to promote this form of racism. In Treitschke's writings Semitic was synonymous with Jewish, in contrast to its usage by Renan and others Never mind its preposterous old origin, this term was cooked up at a time when Drapetomania was still a valid term, and Muslims were called Moslems, and Indians: oriental! actually its akin to a modern nonsense/non-word: "homophobia"... homophobia cannot have the meaning it is known to have judging by the combinaton of the word HOMO and PHOBIA... which should mean literally clinical fear of things "one and the same," as "homo is a greek prefix that means: the same, together etc" in our world, it frequently used to designate person who oppose gay marriage and even people who aren't sufficiently worshipful of gays... which is absurd. If language is not to become mere errant babble to excite the glands of liberals, and if we use language with precision: then ANTI-SEMETISM CAN ONLY MEAN: ANTIPATHY TOWARDS SEMITES... which are not exclusively jews! in fact, the overwhelming majority of semites are arabs and north africans... and isn't it a funny thing that if we took the meaning literally- Jews would actually be the biggest anti-semites of all! as verified by their treatment and views of their Semite neighbors. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bloodyminded Posted July 16, 2010 Report Share Posted July 16, 2010 Every argument that you have put out so far is in perfect alignment with the formation of a communist society, most of what you say is straight Marcuse PC rhetoric, you know it and I know it... I know the jargon!: Ok, let's look at your charges: "the underpriviledged! Only assholes don't care about the underpriveleged. Caring abou the underpriveleged is not "communism," surely...unless you give communism a lot more credit than I do. world peace! Almost everybody thinks world peace would be excellent; very few disagree. If you say it's not too likley, I agree wholeheartedly. world corps! I have never used such a term. Not once, ever. systemic discrimination! Everyone, virtually without exception, believes that systemic discrimination exists. You, for example, think that wealthy white men are victims of systemic discrimination. european racism and bigotry! I don't remember ever talking about European racism and bigotry...but surely Europeans have a pretty sordid history on this front. hate speech is unacceptable!" I not only have never said this, but I disagree with it; I don't like hate speech, but I don't care for the laws that have sprung up to try foolishly to stop it. this is what punctuates nearly every line that your write! Including those I have never said and don't believe? That's a bit of a stretch. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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