Hi @Contrarian, thanks for answering and for the Grammarly link.
So from my European point of view, the current U.S. politic (in general of course) corresponds to the concept of Lean state (for instance no new taxes ideology, like the 1988 Bush administration, or not a lot of social assistance from the government). Therefore lean state seems to let society works by herself. Just like the "laissez faire" ideology of Adam Smith.
And when I studied the prohibition period in my opinion, I think the government by banning alcohol wanted to strongly regulate society and criminality. So this massive restriction appears to me to be quite exceptional in the political history of the U.S. that obey normally (and generally) to the concept of Lean state.
That's why I was wondering if linking prohibition to the concept of Welfare state (when the government has massive regulatory powers in the social (and economic) dimension of society) is correct.
If my question is still unclear, it may be because, im quite a beginner, so maybe im using concepts that don't mean what I'm trying to explain. Also, I know that my vision of U.S. politics is maybe a bit too influenced by my European point of view.
Well, I hope my question is clear now, and if it's not, no problem.
